So, yeah...the "government" (that's us) can pay for abortions and other "birth control" procedures instead. I wonder, not being a legal beagle, how the Hyde Amendment figures into this? Or, since we don't do federal budgets anymore and now rely on continuing resolutions to fund the lawless administration, if it even matters?
In other words, if it is not Constitutional to force closely held private corporations (companies owned by a few individuals) to violate their religious beliefs then how is is Constitutional to force individuals via the taxes they are forced to pay to similarly violate their religious beliefs? How can the government directly fund abortions or other birth control procedures without violating the religious beliefs of taxpayers?